The Correct Answer is C!
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A 44-year-old woman presents with one week of systemic symptoms but yesterday developed severe pleuritic substernal chest pain, made better by sitting up. Her exam showed an otherwise healthy woman in severe pain, BP 122/80 P 95 with a normal JVP. There was three component rub at the apex, and the ECG was consistent with pericarditis. Her troponin was normal, but she had an elevated sedimentation rate of 50 mm/hr.
What is the optimal treatment regimen?
- Bolus high dose steroids with rapid taper over 4 weeks
- High dose NSAID alone
- High dose ASA and colchicine
- Infliximab given intravenously now, repeat in 4 weeks
1. Source: "Comparative Analysis of Pre/Post Assessments of Live/Didactic Course Attendees when compared to Mico-Learning/Online Course Users., "Knowledge to Practice, 2017.